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Free CCSK Exam Braindumps - New 2025 Cloud Security Alliance Pratice Exam [Q25-Q48]

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Free CCSK Exam Braindumps - New 2025 Cloud Security Alliance Pratice Exam

Practice Test for CCSK Certification Real 2025 Mock Exam

NEW QUESTION # 25
Which of the following is NOT normally a method for detecting and preventing data migration into the cloud?

  • A. Cloud Access and Security Brokers (CASB)
  • B. Data Loss Prevention
  • C. Database Activity Monitoring
  • D. URL filters
  • E. Intrusion Prevention System

Answer: E


NEW QUESTION # 26
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of cloud computing?

  • A. Metered service
  • B. Reduced personnel cost
  • C. On-demand self service
  • D. Resource Pooling

Answer: B

Explanation:
The characteristics of cloud computing are
1. 0n-demand self-service: A consumer can unilaterally provision computing capabilities, such as server time and network storage, as needed automatically without requiring human interaction with each service provider.
2. Broad network access: Capabilities are available over the network and accessed through standard mechanisms that promote use by heterogeneous thin or thick client platforms(e.g, mobile phones, tablets, laptops and workstations).
3. Resource pooling: The provider's computing resources are pooled to serve multiple consumers using a multi-tenant model, with different physical and virtual resources dynamically assigned and reassigned according to consumer demand. There is a sense of location independence in that the customer generally has no control or knowledge over the exact location of the provided resources but may be able to specify location at a higher level of abstraction(e.g, country, state or datacenter).
Examples of resources include storage, processing, memory and network bandwidth.
4. Rapid elasticity: Capabilities can be elastically provisioned and released, in some cases automatically, to scale rapidly outward and inward commensurate with demand. To the consumer, the capabilities available for provisioning often appear to be unlimited and can be appropriated in any quantity at anytime.
5. Measured service: Cloud systems automatically control and optimize resource use by leveraging a metering capability at some level of abstraction appropriate to the type of service(e.g, storage, processing, bandwidth and active user accounts).
Resource usage can be monitored, controlled and reported, providing transparency for the provider and consumer.


NEW QUESTION # 27
Which of the following functions maps to all the phases of Data security life cycle?

  • A. Process
  • B. Destroy
  • C. Store
  • D. Read/Access

Answer: D

Explanation:
Functions: There are three things we can do with a given datum:
. Read, View/read the data, including creating, copying, file transfers, dissemination, and other exchanges of information.
* Process. Perform a transaction on the data; update it; use it in a business processing transaction, etc.
. Store, Hold the data (in a file, database, etc.).


NEW QUESTION # 28
What is the primary focus during the Preparation phase of the Cloud Incident Response framework?

  • A. Establishing a Cloud Incident Response Team and response plans
  • B. Deploying automated security monitoring tools across cloud services
  • C. Developing a cloud service provider evaluation criterion
  • D. Conducting regular vulnerability assessments on cloud infrastructure

Answer: A

Explanation:
The Preparation phase focuses on setting up an incident response team and developing plans to handle incidents efficiently when they occur. Reference: [Security Guidance v5, Domain 11 - Incident Response]


NEW QUESTION # 29
Like security and compliance. BC/DR is not a shared responsibility.

  • A. True
  • B. False

Answer: A

Explanation:
This is True
Like security and compliance, BC/DR is a shared responsibility. There are aspects that the cloud provider has to manage, but the cloud customer is also ultimately responsible for how they use and manage the cloud service. This is especially true when planning for outages of the cloud provider (or parts of the cloud provider's service).
Ref Reference: CSA Security GuidelinesV.4(reproduced here for the educational purpose)


NEW QUESTION # 30
ENISA: "VM hopping" is:

  • A. Instability in VM patch management causing VM routing errors.
  • B. Looping within virtualized routing systems.
  • C. Lack of vulnerability management standards.
  • D. Improper management of VM instances, causing customer VMs to be commingled with other customer systems.
  • E. Using a compromised VM to exploit a hypervisor, used to take control of other VMs.

Answer: E


NEW QUESTION # 31
Which of the following is NOT part of Risk management process?

  • A. Responding
  • B. Dealing
  • C. Assessing
  • D. Framing

Answer: B

Explanation:
The risk-management process has four components
1. Framing risk
2. Assessing risk
3. Responding to risk
4. Monitoring risk


NEW QUESTION # 32
Which of the cloud service model has least maintenance or administration from a cloud customer perspective?

  • A. XaaS
  • B. IaaS
  • C. PaaS
  • D. SaaS

Answer: D

Explanation:
SaaS requires least maintenance from the customer as all the infrastructure up to application is managed by the cloud service provider


NEW QUESTION # 33
What is the most significant security difference between traditional infrastructure and cloud computing?

  • A. Secondary authentication factors
  • B. Management plane
  • C. Mobile security configuration options
  • D. Network access points
  • E. Intrusion detection options

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 34
How does centralized logging simplify security monitoring and compliance?

  • A. It consolidates logs into a single location.
  • B. It decreases the amount of data that needs to be reviewed.
  • C. It encrypts all logs to prevent unauthorized access.
  • D. It automatically resolves all detected security threats.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Centralized logging aggregates logs in one location, making it easier to monitor, analyze, and comply with regulatory requirements. Reference: [Security Guidance v5, Domain 6 - Security Monitoring]


NEW QUESTION # 35
Which activity is a critical part of the Post-Incident Analysis phase in cybersecurity incident response?

  • A. Restoring services to normal operations
  • B. Notifying affected parties
  • C. Isolating affected systems
  • D. Documenting lessons learned and improving future responses

Answer: D

Explanation:
Documenting lessons learned is essential in the post-incident phase, as it helps improve future incident response processes. Reference: [Security Guidance v5, Domain 11 - Incident Response]


NEW QUESTION # 36
Which of the following can result in vendor lock-in?

  • A. technology
  • B. Proprietary data formats
  • C. Large datasets
  • D. Favourable contract in favour of customer

Answer: B

Explanation:
Proprietary data formats should be avoided. This can result in vendor lock-in.


NEW QUESTION # 37
How should an SDLC be modified to address application security in a Cloud Computing environment?

  • A. Updated threat and trust models
  • B. Both B and C
  • C. Just-in-time compilers
  • D. No modification is needed
  • E. Integrated development environments

Answer: E


NEW QUESTION # 38
What is the primary reason dynamic and expansive cloud environments require agile security approaches?

  • A. To reduce costs associated with physical hardware
  • B. To quickly respond to evolving threats and changing infrastructure
  • C. To ensure high availability and load balancing
  • D. To simplify the deployment of virtual machines

Answer: B

Explanation:
Agile security approaches allow organizations to adapt to the rapid changes and emerging threats characteristic of cloud environments. Reference: [Security Guidance v5, Domain 4 - Organization Management]


NEW QUESTION # 39
CCM: The following list of controls belong to which domain of the CCM?
GRM 06 - Policy GRM 07 - Policy Enforcement GRM 08 - Policy Impact on Risk Assessments GRM 09 - Policy Reviews GRM 10 - Risk Assessments GRM 11 - Risk Management Framework

  • A. Governing and Risk Metrics
  • B. Governance and Risk Management
  • C. Governance and Retention Management

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:


NEW QUESTION # 40
Which of the following describes the cloud security reference architecture?

  • A. ISO 27032
  • B. ISO 17789
  • C. ISO 17788
  • D. ISO 27001

Answer: C

Explanation:
ISO 17788 has a cloud reference architecture


NEW QUESTION # 41
Which of the following authentication is most secured?

  • A. Username and encrypted password
  • B. Bio metric Access
  • C. Active Directory
  • D. Multi-factor Authentication

Answer: D

Explanation:
All privileged user accounts should use multi-factor authentication(MFA). If possible, all cloud accounts(even individual user accounts) should use MFA. It's one of the single most effective security controls to defend against a wide range of attacks. This is also true regardless of the service model: MFA is just as important for SaaS as it is for IaaS.
Reference: CSA Security GuidelinesV.4(reproduced here for the educational purpose)


NEW QUESTION # 42
Who is responsible for Governance, Risk & Compliance in Software as a Service(SaaS) service model?

  • A. It's a shared responsibility between Cloud Service Provider and Cloud Customer
  • B. Cloud Carrier
  • C. Cloud Service Provider
  • D. Cloud Customer

Answer: D

Explanation:
Remember, GRC will always remain responsibility of the cloud customer in all service models


NEW QUESTION # 43
Which of the following will not be provided by cloud services when requested by the customer?

  • A. Details of security controls
  • B. Geographical locations of the datacentre
  • C. SIEM logs
  • D. DLP solution results

Answer: A

Explanation:
The cloud service provider will not provide the details of security controls as it will harm the security of its infrastructure if the adversaries knows the details.


NEW QUESTION # 44
What is the primary goal of implementing DevOps in a software development lifecycle?

  • A. To create a separation between development and operations
  • B. To enhance collaboration between development and IT operations for efficient delivery
  • C. To reduce the development team size by merging roles
  • D. To eliminate the need for IT operations by automating all tasks

Answer: B

Explanation:
DevOps aims to improve collaboration and integration between development and operations teams, streamlining delivery and enhancing software quality. Reference: [CCSK Study Guide, Domain 10 - DevOps
& DevSecOps]


NEW QUESTION # 45
Which of the following best describes the responsibility for security in a cloud environment?

  • A. Cloud Service Providers (CSPs) and Cloud Service Customers (CSCs) share security responsibilities.The allocation of responsibilities is constant.
  • B. Cloud Service Customers (CSCs) are solely responsible for security in the cloud environment. The Cloud Service Providers (CSPs) are accountable.
  • C. Cloud Service Providers (CSPs) are solely responsible for security in the cloud environment. Cloud Service Customers (CSCs) have an advisory role.
  • D. Cloud Service Providers (CSPs) and Cloud Service Customers (CSCs) share security responsibilities.
    The exact allocation of responsibilities depends on the technology and context.

Answer: D

Explanation:
The shared security responsibility model in cloud environments clarifies that CSPs and CSCs both have roles, with specific responsibilities varying based on the service model (IaaS, PaaS, SaaS). In IaaS, CSCs handle more security, while CSPs manage most security in SaaS. Reference: [CCSK Study Guide, Domain 1 - Cloud Security Scope and Responsibilities]


NEW QUESTION # 46
In Platform as a Service (PaaS), platform security is a responsibility of:

  • A. Neither of them
  • B. It's a shared responsibility
  • C. Customer
  • D. Cloud service provider

Answer: B

Explanation:
This is a very confusing question and we need to understand that its a shared responsibility between cloud service provider and customer.


NEW QUESTION # 47
Cloud architectures necessitate certain roles which are extremely high-risk. Examples of such roles include CP system administrators and auditors and managed security service providers dealing with intrusion detection reports and incident response. They are known as high-risk because their malicious activities can lead to abuse of high privilege roles and can impact confidentiality, integrity and availability of data.

  • A. True
  • B. False

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 48
......

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