Updated Apr-2025 Test Engine to Practice 212-82 Dumps & Practice Exam
Dumps Collection 212-82 Test Engine Dumps Training With 163 Questions
NEW QUESTION # 68
A pfSense firewall has been configured to block a web application www.abchacker.com. Perform an analysis on the rules set by the admin and select the protocol which has been used to apply the rule.
Hint: Firewall login credentials are given below:
Username: admin
Password: admin@l23
- A. POP3
- B. ARP
- C. TCP/UDP
- D. FTP
Answer: C
Explanation:
TCP/UDP is the protocol that has been used to apply the rule to block the web application www.abchacker.com in the above scenario. pfSense is a firewall and router software that can be installed on a computer or a device to protect a network from variousthreats and attacks. pfSense can be configured to block or allow traffic based on various criteria, such as source, destination, port, protocol, etc. pfSense rules are applied to traffic in the order they appear in the firewall configuration . To perform an analysis on the rules set by the admin, one has to follow these steps:
* Open a web browser and type 20.20.10.26
* Press Enter key to access the pfSense web interface.
* Enter admin as username and admin@l23 as password.
* Click on Login button.
* Click on Firewall menu and select Rules option.
* Click on LAN tab and observe the rules applied to LAN interface.
The rules applied to LAN interface are:
The first rule blocks any traffic from LAN interface to www.abchacker.com website using TCP/UDP protocol.
The second rule allows any traffic from LAN interface to any destination using any protocol. Since the first rule appears before the second rule, it has higher priority and will be applied first. Therefore, TCP/UDP is the protocol that has been used to apply the rule to block the web application www.abchacker.com. POP3 (Post Office Protocol 3) is a protocol that allows downloading emails from a mail server to a client device. FTP (File Transfer Protocol) is a protocol that allows transferring files between a client and a server over a network.
ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) is a protocol that resolves IP addresses to MAC (Media Access Control) addresses on a network.
NEW QUESTION # 69
Shawn, a forensic officer, was appointed to investigate a crime scene that had occurred at a coffee shop. As a part of investigation, Shawn collected the mobile device from the victim, which may contain potential evidence to identify the culprits.
Which of the following points must Shawn follow while preserving the digital evidence? (Choose three.)
- A. Make sure that the device is charged
- B. Never record the screen display of the device
- C. Turn the device ON if it is OFF
- D. Do not leave the device as it is if it is ON
Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:
Turn the device ON if it is OFF, do not leave the device as it is if it is ON, and make sure that the device is charged are some of the points that Shawn must follow while preserving the digital evidence in the above scenario. Digital evidence is any information or data stored or transmitted in digital form that can be used in a legal proceeding or investigation. Digital evidence can be found on various devices, such as computers, mobile phones, tablets, etc. Preserving digital evidence is a crucial step in forensic investigation that involves protecting and maintaining the integrity and authenticity of digital evidence from any alteration or damage. Some of the points that Shawn must follow while preserving digital evidence are:
Turn the device ON if it is OFF: If the device is OFF, Shawn must turn it ON to prevent any data loss or encryption that may occur when the device is powered off. Shawn must also document any password or PIN required to unlock or access the device.
Do not leave the device as it is if it is ON: If the device is ON, Shawn must not leave it as it is or use it for any purpose other than preserving digital evidence. Shawn must also disable any network connections or communication features on the device, such as Wi-Fi, Bluetooth, cellular data, etc., to prevent any remote access or deletion of data by unauthorized parties.
Make sure that the device is charged: Shawn must ensure that the device has enough battery power to prevent any data loss or corruption that may occur due to sudden shutdown or low battery. Shawn must also use a write blocker or a Faraday bag to isolate the device from any external interference or signals.
Never record the screen display of the device is not a point that Shawn must follow while preserving digital evidence. On contrary, Shawn should record or photograph the screen display of the device to capture any relevant information or messages that may appear on the screen. Recording or photographing the screen display of the device can also help document any changes or actions performed on the device during preservation.
NEW QUESTION # 70
Kason, a forensic officer, was appointed to investigate a case where a threat actor has bullied certain children online. Before proceeding legally with the case, Kason has documented all the supporting documents, including source of the evidence and its relevance to the case, before presenting it in front of the jury.
Which of the following rules of evidence was discussed in the above scenario?
- A. Authentic
- B. Reliable
- C. Understandable
- D. Admissible
Answer: D
Explanation:
Admissible is the rule of evidence discussed in the above scenario. A rule of evidence is a criterion or principle that determines whether a piece of evidence can be used in a legal proceeding or investigation.
Admissible is a rule of evidence that states that the evidence must be relevant, reliable, authentic, and understandable to be accepted by a court or a jury . Admissible also means that the evidence must be obtained legally and ethically, without violating any laws or rights. In the scenario, Kason has documented all the supporting documents, including source of the evidence and its relevance to the case, before presenting it in front of the jury, which means that he has followed the admissible rule of evidence. Authentic is a rule of evidence that states that the evidence must be original or verifiable as genuine and not altered or tampered with. Understandable is a rule of evidence that states that the evidence must be clear and comprehensible to the court or jury and not ambiguous or confusing. Reliable is a rule of evidence that states that the evidence must be consistent and trustworthy and not based on hearsay or speculation.
NEW QUESTION # 71
Jase. a security team member at an organization, was tasked with ensuring uninterrupted business operations under hazardous conditions. Thus, Jase implemented a deterrent control strategy to minimize the occurrence of threats, protect critical business areas, and mitigate the impact of threats. Which of the following business continuity and disaster recovery activities did Jase perform in this scenario?
- A. Restoration
- B. Recovery
- C. Response
- D. Prevention
Answer: D
Explanation:
Prevention is the business continuity and disaster recovery activity performed by Jase in this scenario.
Prevention is an activity that involves implementing a deterrent control strategy to minimize the occurrence of threats, protect critical business areas, and mitigate the impact of threats. Prevention can include measures such as backup systems, firewalls, antivirus software, or physical security1. References: Prevention Activity in BCDR
NEW QUESTION # 72
Ashton is working as a security specialist in SoftEight Tech. He was instructed by the management to strengthen the Internet access policy. For this purpose, he implemented a type of Internet access policy that forbids everything and imposes strict restrictions on all company computers, whether it is system or network usage.
Identify the type of Internet access policy implemented by Ashton in the above scenario.
- A. Paranoid policy
- B. Permissive policy
- C. Prudent policy
- D. Promiscuous policy
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is A, as it identifies the type of Internet access policy implemented by Ashton in the above scenario. An Internet access policy is a set of rules and guidelines that defines how an organization's employees or members can use the Internet and what types of websites or services they can access. There are different types of Internet access policies, such as:
* Paranoid policy: This type of policy forbids everything and imposes strict restrictions on all company computers, whether it is system or network usage. This policy is suitable for organizations that deal with highly sensitive or classified information and have a high level of security and compliance requirements.
* Prudent policy: This type of policy allows some things and blocks others and imposes moderate restrictions on company computers, depending on the role and responsibility of the user. This policy is suitable for organizations that deal with confidential or proprietary information and have a medium level of security and compliance requirements.
* Permissive policy: This type of policy allows most things and blocks few and imposes minimal restrictions on company computers, as long as the user does not violate any laws or regulations. This policy is suitable for organizations that deal with public or general information and have a low level of security and compliance requirements.
* Promiscuous policy: This type of policy allows everything and blocks nothing and imposes no restrictions on company computers, regardless of the user's role or responsibility. This policy is suitable for organizations that have no security or compliance requirements and trust their employees or members to use the Internet responsibly.
In the above scenario, Ashton implemented a paranoid policy that forbids everything and imposes strict restrictions on all company computers, whether it is system or network usage. Option B is incorrect, as it does not identify the type of Internet access policy implemented by Ashton in the above scenario. A prudent policy allows some things and blocks others and imposes moderate restrictions on company computers, depending on the role and responsibility of the user. In the above scenario, Ashton did not implement a prudent policy, but a paranoid policy. Option C is incorrect, as it does not identify the type of Internet access policy implemented by Ashton in the above scenario. A permissive policy allows most things and blocks few and imposes minimal restrictions on company computers, as long as the user does not violate any laws or regulations. In the above scenario, Ashton did not implement a permissive policy, but a paranoid policy. Option D is incorrect, as it does not identify the type of Internet access policy implemented by Ashton in the above scenario. A promiscuous policy allows everything and blocks nothing and imposes no restrictions on company computers, regardless of the user's role or responsibility. In the above scenario, Ashton did not implement a promiscuous policy, but a paranoid policy.
References: , Section 6.2
NEW QUESTION # 73
Nancy, a security specialist, was instructed to identify issues related to unexpected shutdown and restarts on a Linux machine. To identify the incident cause, Nancy navigated to a directory on the Linux system and accessed a log file to troubleshoot problems related to improper shutdowns and unplanned restarts.
Identify the Linux log file accessed by Nancy in the above scenario.
- A. /var/log/boot.log
- B. /var/log/kern.log
- C. /var/log/lighttpd/
- D. /var/log/secure
Answer: A
Explanation:
/var/log/boot.log is the Linux log file accessed by Nancy in the above scenario. Linux is an open-source operating system that logs various events and activities on the system or network. Linux log files are stored in the /var/log directory, which contains different types of log files for different purposes. /var/log/boot.log is the type of log file that records events related to the booting process of the Linux system, such as loading drivers, services, modules, etc. /var/log/boot.log can help identify issues related to unexpected shutdowns and restarts on a Linux machine . /var/log/secure is the type of log file that records events related to security and authentication, such as logins, logouts, password changes, sudo commands, etc. /var/log/kern.log is the type of log file that records events related to the kernel, such as kernel messages, errors, warnings, etc. /var/log/lighttpd/ is the directory that contains log files related to the lighttpd web server, such as access logs, error logs, etc.
NEW QUESTION # 74
Johnson, an attacker, performed online research for the contact details of reputed cybersecurity firms. He found the contact number of sibertech.org and dialed the number, claiming himself to represent a technical support team from a vendor. He warned that a specific server is about to be compromised and requested sibertech.org to follow the provided instructions. Consequently, he prompted the victim to execute unusual commands and install malicious files, which were then used to collect and pass critical Information to Johnson's machine. What is the social engineering technique Steve employed in the above scenario?
- A. Phishing
- B. Elicitation
- C. Diversion theft
- D. Quid pro quo
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 75
Martin, a network administrator at an organization, received breaching alerts for an application. He identified that a vulnerability in the application allowed attackers to enter malicious input. Martin evaluated the threat severity and extent of damage that could be caused by this vulnerability. He then escalated the issue to the security management team to determine appropriate mitigation strategies. In which of the following threat-modeling steps did Martin evaluate the severity level of the threat?
- A. Application overview
- B. Decompose the application
- C. Identify vulnerabilities
- D. Risk and impact analysis
Answer: D
Explanation:
Risk and impact analysis is the threat-modeling step in which Martin evaluated the severity level of the threat in the above scenario. Threat modeling is a process that involves identifying, analyzing, and mitigating threats and risks to a system or network. Threat modeling can be used to improve the security and resilience of a system or network by applying various methods or techniques, such as STRIDE, DREAD, PASTA, etc. Threat modeling consists of various steps or phases that perform different tasks or roles. Risk and impact analysis is a threat-modeling step that involves assessing the likelihood and consequences of threats and risks to a system or network . Risk and impact analysis can be used to evaluate the severity level of threats and risks and prioritize them for mitigation . In the scenario, Martin received breaching alerts for an application. He identified that a vulnerability in the application allowed attackers to enter malicious input. Martin evaluated the threat severity and extent of damage that could be caused by this vulnerability. He then escalated the issue to the security management team to determine appropriate mitigation strategies. This means that he performed risk and impact analysis for this purpose. Identify vulnerabilities is a threat-modeling step that involves finding and documenting the weaknesses or flaws in a system or network that can be exploited by threats or risks .
Application overview is a threat-modeling step that involves defining and understanding the scope, architecture, components, and functionality of a system or network .Decompose the application is a threat-modeling step that involves breaking down a system or network into smaller and simpler elements, such as data flows, processes, assets, etc.
NEW QUESTION # 76
Sam, a software engineer, visited an organization to give a demonstration on a software tool that helps in business development. The administrator at the organization created a least privileged account on a system and allocated that system to Sam for the demonstration. Using this account, Sam can only access the files that are required for the demonstration and cannot open any other file in the system.
Which of the following types of accounts the organization has given to Sam in the above scenario?
- A. Administrator account
- B. User account
- C. Service account
- D. Guest account
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is B, as it identifies the type of account that the organization has given to Sam in the above scenario. A guest account is a type of account that allows temporary or limited access to a system or network for visitors or users who do not belong to the organization. A guest account typically has minimal privileges and permissions and can only access certain files or applications. In the above scenario, the organization has given Sam a guest account for the demonstration. Using this account, Sam can only access the files that are required for the demonstration and cannot open any other file in the system. Option A is incorrect, as it does not identify the type of account that the organization has given to Sam in the above scenario. A service account is a type of account that allows applications or services to run on a system or network under a specific identity. A service account typically has high privileges and permissions and can access various files or applications. In the above scenario, the organization has not given Sam a service account for the demonstration. Option C is incorrect, as it does not identify the type of account that the organization has given to Sam in the above scenario. A user account is a type of account that allows regular access to a system or network for employees or members of an organization. A user account typically has moderate privileges and permissions and can access various files or applications depending on their role. In the above scenario, the organization has not given Sam a user account for the demonstration. Option D is incorrect, as it does not identify the type of account that the organization has given to Sam in the above scenario. An administrator account is a type of account that allows full access to a system or network for administrators or managers of an organization. An administrator account typically has the highest privileges and permissions and can access and modify any files or applications. In the above scenario, the organization has not given Sam an administrator account for the demonstration.
NEW QUESTION # 77
Omar, an encryption specialist in an organization, was tasked with protecting low-complexity applications such as RFID tags, sensor-based applications, and other IbT-based applications. For this purpose, he employed an algorithm for all lower-powered devices that used less power and resources without compromising device security.
identify the algorithm employed by Omar in this scenario.
- A. Lightweight cryptography
- B. Quantum cryptography
- C. Elliptic curve cryptography
- D. Homomorphic encryption
Answer: A
Explanation:
Lightweight cryptography is an algorithm that is designed for low-complexity applications such as RFID tags, sensor-based applications, and other IoT-based applications. Lightweight cryptography uses less power and resources without compromising device security. Lightweight cryptography can be implemented using symmetric-key algorithms, asymmetric-key algorithms, or hash functions1.
References: Lightweight Cryptography
NEW QUESTION # 78
A global financial Institution experienced a sophisticated cyber-attack where attackers gained access to the internal network and exfiltrated sensitive data over several months. The attack was complex, involving a mix of phishing, malware, and exploitation of system vulnerabilities. Once discovered, the institution initiated its incident response process. Considering the nature and severity of the incident, what should be the primary focus of the incident response team's initial efforts?
- A. Notifying law enforcement and regulatory bodies immediately to comply with legal and regulatory requirements
- B. Conducting a comprehensive system audit to identify all vulnerabilities and patch them immediately
- C. Isolating affected systems to prevent further data exfiltration and analyzing network traffic for anomalies
- D. Implementing a communication plan to manage public relations and customer communication regarding the breach
Answer: C
Explanation:
* Isolating Affected Systems:
* Containment: Immediately isolate compromised systems to prevent further data exfiltration and limit the spread of the attack.
* Minimize Impact: This step helps to mitigate ongoing damage and protect unaffected systems.
* Analyzing Network Traffic:
* Identify Anomalies: Analyze network traffic to identify any anomalies or patterns indicative of the attack. This helps to understand the attack vector and extent of the breach.
* Gather Evidence: Collect evidence that can be used to trace the attacker's methods and identify vulnerabilities.
Additional Steps:
* After containment and analysis, the incident response team can proceed with notifying law enforcement, conducting a system audit, and managing public relations.
References:
* Incident response best practices:NIST Computer Security Incident Handling Guide
* Strategies for cyber incident containment: SANS Institute
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NEW QUESTION # 79
Alpha Finance, a leading banking institution, is launching anew mobile banking app. Given the sensitive financial data involved, it wants to ensure that Its application follows the best security practices. As the primary recommendation, which guideline should Alpha Finance prioritize?
- A. Employing multi-factor authentication (MFA) for user logins
- B. Embedding an antivirus within the app
- C. Encouraging users to update to the latest version of their OS
- D. Providing an in-app VPN for secure transactions
Answer: A
Explanation:
For a mobile banking app, ensuring secure user authentication is crucial. Multi-factor authentication (MFA) provides a robust security layer:
* Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA):
* Definition: MFA requires users to provide two or more verification factors to gain access, combining something they know (password), something they have (smartphone), and something they are (biometric verification).
* Security Benefits: Significantly reduces the risk of unauthorized access even if one factor is compromised.
* Implementation:
* User Convenience: Integrate seamlessly into the app to maintain a positive user experience.
* Enhanced Security: Protects against various attack vectors, including phishing, brute force attacks, and credential stuffing.
References:
* NIST Digital Identity Guidelines:NIST SP 800-63
* OWASP Mobile Security Testing Guide: OWASP MSTG
NEW QUESTION # 80
Miguel, a professional hacker, targeted an organization to gain illegitimate access to its critical information. He identified a flaw in the end-point communication that can disclose the target application's data.
Which of the following secure application design principles was not met by the application in the above scenario?
- A. Exception handling
- B. Fault tolerance
- C. Secure the weakest link
- D. Do not trust user input
Answer: A
Explanation:
Exception handling is a secure application design principle that states that the application should handle errors and exceptions gracefully and securely, without exposing sensitive information or compromising the system's functionality. Exception handling can help prevent attackers from exploiting errors or exceptions to gain access to data or resources or cause denial-of-service attacks. In the scenario, Miguel identified a flaw in the end-point communication that can disclose the target application's data, which means that the application did not meet the exception handling principle.
NEW QUESTION # 81
The incident handling and response (IH&R) team of an organization was handling a recent cyberattack on the organization's web server. Fernando, a member of the IH&P team, was tasked with eliminating the root cause of the incident and closing all attack vectors to prevent similar incidents in future. For this purpose. Fernando applied the latest patches to the web server and installed the latest security mechanisms on it. Identify the IH&R step performed by Fernando in this scenario.
- A. Notification
- B. Eradication
- C. Recovery
- D. Containment
Answer: B
Explanation:
Eradication is the IH&R step performed by Fernando in this scenario. Eradication is a step in IH&R that involves eliminating the root cause of the incident and closing all attack vectors to prevent similar incidents in future. Eradication can include applying patches, installing security mechanisms, removing malware, restoring backups, or reformatting systems.
NEW QUESTION # 82
Richards, a security specialist at an organization, was monitoring an IDS system. While monitoring, he suddenly received an alert of an ongoing intrusion attempt on the organization's network. He immediately averted the malicious actions by implementing the necessary measures.
Identify the type of alert generated by the IDS system in the above scenario.
- A. True positive
- B. True negative
- C. False positive
- D. False negative
Answer: A
Explanation:
A true positive alert is generated by an IDS system when it correctly identifies an ongoing intrusion attempt on the network and sends an alert to the security professional. This is the desired outcome of an IDS system, as it indicates that the system is working effectively and accurately
NEW QUESTION # 83
Kasen, a cybersecurity specialist at an organization, was working with the business continuity and disaster recovery team. The team initiated various business continuity and discovery activities in the organization. In this process, Kasen established a program to restore both the disaster site and the damaged materials to the pre-disaster levels during an incident.
Which of the following business continuity and disaster recovery activities did Kasen perform in the above scenario?
- A. Response
- B. Resumption
- C. Prevention
- D. Recovery
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 84
Kaison. a forensic officer, was investigating a compromised system used for various online attacks. Kaison initiated the data acquisition process and extracted the data from the systems DVD-ROM. Which of the following types of data did Kaison acquire in the above scenario?
- A. Archival media
- B. Processor cache
- C. ARP cache
- D. Kernel statistics
Answer: A
Explanation:
Archival media is the type of data that Kaison acquired in the above scenario. Archival media is a type of data that is stored on removable media such as DVD-ROMs, CD-ROMs, tapes, or flash drives. Archival media can be used to backup or transfer data from one system to another. Archival media can be acquired using forensic tools that can read and copy the data from the media4. References: Archival Media
NEW QUESTION # 85
A global financial services firm Is revising its cybersecurity policies to comply with a diverse range of international regulatory frameworks and laws. The firm operates across multiple continents, each with distinct legal requirements concerning data protection, privacy, and cybersecurity. As part of their compliance strategy, they are evaluating various regulatory frameworks to determine which ones are most critical to their operations. Given the firm's international scope and the nature of its services, which of the following regulatory frameworks should be prioritized for compliance?
- A. NIST Cybersecurity Framework
- B. Qceneral Data Protection Regulation (CDPR) - European Union
- C. ISO 27001 Information Security Management System
- D. ISO 27002 Code of Practice for information security controls
Answer: B
Explanation:
* GDPR Overview:
* The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) is a comprehensive data protection law in the European Union that sets out requirements for companies and organizations on collecting, storing, and managing personal data.
NEW QUESTION # 86
The SOC department in a multinational organization has collected logs of a security event as
"Windows.events.evtx". Study the Audit Failure logs in the event log file located in the Documents folder of the
-Attacker Maehine-1" and determine the IP address of the attacker. (Note: The event ID of Audit failure logs is
4625.)
(Practical Question)
- A. 10.10.1.12
- B. 10.10.1.10
- C. 10.10.1.19
- D. 10.10.1.16
Answer: D
Explanation:
The IP address of the attacker is 10.10.1.16. This can be verified by analyzing the Windows.events.evtx file using a tool such as Event Viewer or Log Parser. The file contains several Audit Failure logs with event ID 4625, which indicate failed logon attempts to the system. The logs show that the source network address of the failed logon attempts is 10.10.1.16, which is the IP address of the attacker3. The screenshot below shows an example of viewing one of the logs using Event Viewer4: Reference: Audit Failure Log, [Windows.events.evtx], [Screenshot of Event Viewer showing Audit Failure log]
NEW QUESTION # 87
A software company is developing a new software product by following the best practices for secure application development. Dawson, a software analyst, is checking the performance of the application on the client's network to determine whether end users are facing any issues in accessing the application.
Which of the following tiers of a secure application development lifecycle involves checking the performance of the application?
- A. Development
- B. Testing
- C. Quality assurance (QA)
- D. Staging
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 88
A startup firm contains various devices connected to a wireless network across the floor. An AP with Internet connectivity is placed in a corner to allow wireless communication between devices. To support new devices connected to the network beyond the APS range, an administrator used a network device that extended the signals of the wireless AP and transmitted it to uncovered area, identify the network component employed by the administrator to extend signals in this scenario.
- A. wireless modem
- B. Wireless bridge
- C. Wireless repeater
- D. Wireless router
Answer: C
Explanation:
Wireless repeater is the network component employed by the administrator to extend signals in this scenario.
A wireless network is a type of network that uses radio waves or infrared signals to transmit data between devices without using cables or wires. A wireless network can consist of various components, such as wireless access points (APs), wireless routers, wireless adapters, wireless bridges, wireless repeaters, etc. A wireless repeater is a network component that extends the range or coverage of a wireless signal by receiving it from an AP or another repeater and retransmitting it to another area . A wireless repeater can be used to support new devices connected to the network beyond the AP's range . In the scenario, a startup firm contains various devices connected to a wireless network across the floor. An AP with internet connectivity is placed in a corner to allow wireless communication between devices. To support new devices connected to the network beyond the AP's range, an administrator used a network component that extended the signals of the wireless AP and transmitted it to the uncovered area. This means that he used a wireless repeater for this purpose. A wireless bridge is a network component that connects two or more wired or wireless networks or segments together . A wireless bridge can be used to expand the network or share resources between networks . A wireless modem is a network component that modulates and demodulates wireless signals to enable data transmission over anetwork . A wireless modem can be used to provide internet access to devices via a cellular network or a satellite network . A wireless router is a network component that performs the functions of both a wireless AP and a router . A wireless router can be used to create a wireless network and connect it to another network, such as the internet
NEW QUESTION # 89
Thomas, an employee of an organization, is restricted to access specific websites from his office system. He is trying to obtain admin credentials to remove the restrictions. While waiting for an opportunity, he sniffed communication between the administrator and an application server to retrieve the admin credentials. Identify the type of attack performed by Thomas in the above scenario.
- A. Vishing
- B. Phishing
- C. Eavesdropping
- D. Dumpster diving
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 90
Zion belongs to a category of employees who are responsible for implementing and managing the physical security equipment installed around the facility. He was instructed by the management to check the functionality of equipment related to physical security. Identify the designation of Zion.
- A. Guard
- B. Supervisor
- C. Safety officer
- D. Chief information security officer
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is C, as it identifies the designation of Zion. A guard is a person who is responsible for implementing and managing the physical security equipment installed around the facility. A guard typically performs tasks such as:
Checking the functionality of equipment related to physical security
Monitoring the surveillance cameras and alarms
Controlling the access to restricted areas
Responding to emergencies or incidents
In the above scenario, Zion belongs to this category of employees who are responsible for implementing and managing the physical security equipment installed around the facility. Option A is incorrect, as it does not identify the designation of Zion. A supervisor is a person who is responsible for overseeing and directing the work of other employees. A supervisor typically performs tasks such as:
Assigning tasks and responsibilities to employees
Evaluating the performance and productivity of employees
Providing feedback and guidance to employees
Resolving conflicts or issues among employees
In the above scenario, Zion does not belong to this category of employees who are responsible for overseeing and directing the work of other employees. Option B is incorrect, as it does not identify the designation of Zion. A chief information security officer (CISO) is a person who is responsible for establishing and maintaining the security vision, strategy, and program for an organization. A CISO typically performs tasks such as:
Developing and implementing security policies and standards
Managing security risks and compliance
Leading security teams and projects
Communicating with senior management and stakeholders
In the above scenario, Zion does not belong to this category of employees who are responsible for establishing and maintaining the security vision, strategy, and program for an organization. Option D is incorrect, as it does not identify the designation of Zion. A safety officer is a person who is responsible for ensuring that health and safety regulations are followed in an organization. A safety officer typically performs tasks such as:
Conducting safety inspections and audits
Identifying and eliminating hazards and risks
Providing safety training and awareness
Reporting and investigating accidents or incidents
In the above scenario, Zion does not belong to this category of employees who are responsible for ensuring that health and safety regulations are followed in an organization. Reference: Section 7.1
NEW QUESTION # 91
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